IBPS RRB PO Expected 40 Reasoning Questions 2026 with Answers and Explanations

IBPS RRB PO Expected 40 Reasoning Questions 2026 cover important topics such as puzzles, seating arrangements, syllogism, inequality, coding-decoding, blood relations and direction sense. The IBPS RRB PO Prelims Reasoning Ability section carries 40 questions for 40 marks, with 25 minutes allotted to complete it. This practice set includes 40 exam-oriented questions with answers and explanations to help candidates improve their logical thinking, accuracy and speed.

IBPS RRB PO Expected 40 Reasoning Questions 2026

The IBPS RRB PO Reasoning section usually gives considerable weightage to puzzles and seating arrangements. Candidates should also practise short topics such as syllogism, inequality, coding-decoding and direction sense to build a balanced attempt.

The questions below are an original practice set based on the topics and question styles highlighted in the reference material and recent exam-preparation resources. The exact topic-wise distribution may vary across shifts.

IBPS RRB PO Prelims Reasoning pattern

• Total questions: 40
• Total marks: 40
• Sectional time: 25 minutes
• Negative marking: 0.25 mark for each incorrect answer

The RRB PO Exam pattern above follows the available CRP-RRB XV exam-pattern information. Check the official notification for any applicable corrigendum.

Expected topic coverage

• Puzzles and seating arrangements: around 20–25 questions
• Syllogism and inequality: around 6–10 questions
• Coding-decoding, blood relations and direction sense: around 5–8 questions
• Ranking, alphanumeric series and other topics: remaining questions

These are preparation estimates based on previous-year trends, not a fixed official distribution.

For more practice, explore the IBPS RRB PO Reasoning Expected Questions

Puzzle and Seating Arrangement Questions (Q1–Q20)

Directions for Questions 1–5: Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are stacked one above another. The bottommost position is numbered 1.

• Box E is at the bottom.
• Box C is immediately above E.
• Box A is above C.
• Box B is immediately above D.

Q1. Which box occupies the fourth position from the bottom?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

Answer: (B) B

Explanation: E occupies position 1 and C occupies position 2. A must be above C. Since B is immediately above D, D occupies position 3 and B occupies position 4. A occupies position 5.

Q2. Which box occupies the topmost position?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) D
(D) E

Answer: (A) A

Explanation: The arrangement from bottom to top is E, C, D, B and A. Therefore, A is at the top.

Q3. Which box is immediately below B?

(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

Answer: (C) D

Explanation: D occupies position 3 and B occupies position 4. Hence, D is immediately below B.

Q4. How many boxes are between E and B?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Answer: (B) Two

Explanation: E is at position 1 and B is at position 4. C and D are between them.

Q5. Which box occupies the second position from the top?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

Answer: (B) B

Explanation: From the top, the arrangement is A, B, D, C and E. Therefore, B occupies the second position.

Directions for Questions 6–10: Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit in a straight row facing North.

• Q sits at the extreme left end.
• P sits immediately to the right of Q.
• R sits at the fifth position from the left.
• S sits immediately to the left of R.
• T sits at the extreme right end.
• U sits immediately to the right of R.

Q6. Who sits in the middle of the row?

(A) P
(B) V
(C) S
(D) R

Answer: (B) V

Explanation: The arrangement is Q, P, V, S, R, U and T. V occupies the fourth position, which is the middle position.

Q7. Who sits immediately to the left of R?

(A) P
(B) S
(C) U
(D) V

Answer: (B) S

Explanation: S occupies the fourth position, while R occupies the fifth position. Therefore, S sits immediately to the left of R.

Q8. Which person sits third to the right of P?

(A) S
(B) R
(C) U
(D) T

Answer: (B) R

Explanation: P occupies position 2. Moving three places to the right gives position 5, occupied by R.

Q9. How many persons sit between Q and R?

(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five

Answer: (B) Three

Explanation: Q sits at position 1 and R at position 5. P, V and S sit between them.

Q10. Who sits immediately to the left of T?

(A) R
(B) S
(C) U
(D) V

Answer: (C) U

Explanation: T occupies the seventh position and U occupies the sixth position. Hence, U sits immediately to the left of T.

Directions for Questions 11–15: Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table facing the centre.

• B sits immediately clockwise from A.
• C sits second clockwise from A.
• D sits opposite A.
• E sits immediately clockwise from D.
• F occupies the remaining position.

Q11. Who sits opposite A?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

Answer: (C) D

Explanation: The clue directly states that D sits opposite A.

Q12. Who sits immediately clockwise from C?

(A) B
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F

Answer: (B) D

Explanation: The clockwise arrangement is A, B, C, D, E and F. Therefore, D sits immediately clockwise from C.

Q13. Who sits between D and F when moving clockwise from D?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) E
(D) F

Answer: (C) E

Explanation: E sits immediately clockwise from D. Hence, E is the person between D and F in that direction.

Q14. Who sits opposite B?

(A) D
(B) E
(C) F
(D) C

Answer: (C) F

Explanation: In a six-person circular arrangement, the person three positions away sits opposite. F is three positions clockwise from B.

Q15. Who sits immediately anticlockwise from A?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) E
(D) F

Answer: (D) F

Explanation: The person immediately anticlockwise from A is F in the established circular arrangement.

Directions for Questions 16–20: Five candidates A, B, C, D and E attend an interview from Monday to Friday, with one candidate attending on each day.

• A attends on Monday.
• C attends immediately after A.
• E attends immediately after C.
• B attends after E.
• D attends on Friday.

Q16. Who attends the interview on Wednesday?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E

Answer: (D) E

Explanation: The schedule is Monday – A, Tuesday – C, Wednesday – E, Thursday – B and Friday – D.

Q17. On which day does C attend the interview?

(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

Answer: (B) Tuesday

Explanation: C attends immediately after A, who attends on Monday. Therefore, C attends on Tuesday.

Q18. Who attends immediately before B?

(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

Answer: (D) E

Explanation: E attends on Wednesday and B attends on Thursday. Hence, E attends immediately before B.

Q19. How many candidates attend after C?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

Answer: (C) Three

Explanation: C attends on Tuesday. E, B and D attend after C, making three candidates.

Q20. Who attends the interview on the last day?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

Answer: (C) D

Explanation: D attends on Friday, which is the last day of the schedule.

Miscellaneous Reasoning Questions (Q21–Q40)

Q21. Syllogism

Statements:

• All pens are books.
• Some books are papers.

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are papers.
II. All pens are books.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) Neither conclusion follows

Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows

Explanation: All pens are definitely books, so conclusion II follows. However, the statement does not establish any direct relationship between pens and papers. Therefore, conclusion I does not follow.

Q22. Syllogism

Statements:

• Only a few apples are mangoes.
• All mangoes are fruits.

Conclusions:

I. Some apples are fruits.
II. Some apples are not mangoes.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) Neither conclusion follows

Answer: (C) Both conclusions follow

Explanation: Only a few apples are mangoes means some apples are mangoes and some apples are not mangoes. Since all mangoes are fruits, some apples are also fruits.

Q23. Inequality

Statements: A > B = C ≥ D > E

Conclusions:

I. A > D
II. C > E

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) Neither conclusion follows

Answer: (C) Both conclusions follow

Explanation: A is greater than B, and B equals C, which is greater than or equal to D. Therefore, A > D. Also, C ≥ D > E, so C > E.

Q24. Inequality

Statements: P ≤ Q < R = S > T

Conclusions:

I. P < S
II. Q > T

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) Neither conclusion follows

Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows

Explanation: Since P ≤ Q and Q < R = S, P is definitely smaller than S. However, no definite relationship can be established between Q and T.

Q25. Coding-Decoding

In a certain code, BANK is written as CBOL. How will LOAN be written in the same code?

(A) MPBO
(B) MPAO
(C) KPBM
(D) MOBS

Answer: (A) MPBO

Explanation: Each letter is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet.

• L becomes M
• O becomes P
• A becomes B
• N becomes O

Therefore, LOAN is coded as MPBO.

Q26. Coding-Decoding

If TABLE is coded as UBCMF, how will CHAIR be coded?

(A) DIBJS
(B) DIBIR
(C) EIBJS
(D) DHCJS

Answer: (A) DIBJS

Explanation: Each letter is shifted one position forward in the alphabet.

C → D, H → I, A → B, I → J and R → S. Therefore, CHAIR becomes DIBJS.

Q27. Blood Relation

Pointing to a woman, Rahul says, “She is the daughter of my father’s only son.” How is the woman related to Rahul?

(A) Sister
(B) Daughter
(C) Mother
(D) Niece

Answer: (B) Daughter

Explanation: Rahul’s father’s only son is Rahul himself. The daughter of Rahul is therefore his daughter.

Q28. Direction Sense

A person walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 3 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km. How far and in which direction is the person from the starting point?

(A) 3 km East
(B) 3 km West
(C) 5 km North
(D) 5 km South

Answer: (A) 3 km East

Explanation: The person first moves 5 km north, then 3 km east and finally 5 km south. The northward and southward movements cancel each other. The person is 3 km east of the starting point.

Q29. Order and Ranking

In a class of 45 students, Rahul ranks 12th from the top. What is his rank from the bottom?

(A) 32nd
(B) 33rd
(C) 34th
(D) 35th

Answer: (C) 34th

Explanation:

Rank from the bottom = Total students − Rank from the top + 1

= 45 − 12 + 1 = 34

Therefore, Rahul ranks 34th from the bottom.

Q30. Alphanumeric Series

Study the following series:

A 4 B 7 C 9 D 12 E 16 F 21

Which element is third to the right of 9?

(A) D
(B) 12
(C) E
(D) 16

Answer: (C) E

Explanation: Starting from 9, the elements to its right are D, 12 and E. Therefore, E is third to the right of 9.

Q31. Alphabet Series

Find the missing letter:

A, C, F, J, O, ?

(A) T
(B) U
(C) V
(D) W

Answer: (B) U

Explanation: The letter gaps increase by one each time:

A + 2 = C
C + 3 = F
F + 4 = J
J + 5 = O
O + 6 = U

Therefore, U is the missing letter.

Q32. Odd One Out

Choose the odd one out.

(A) 16
(B) 25
(C) 36
(D) 48

Answer: (D) 48

Explanation: 16, 25 and 36 are perfect squares (4², 5² and 6²). However, 48 is not a perfect square.

Q33. Word Formation

Which word cannot be formed using the letters of the word EXAMINATION?

(A) NATION
(B) TAXI
(C) MINT
(D) MOTION

Answer: (D) MOTION

Explanation: The word EXAMINATION contains only one O. MOTION requires two Os, so it cannot be formed using the given letters.

Q34. Number Analogy

12 is related to 144 in the same way as 15 is related to:

(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 225
(D) 250

Answer: (C) 225

Explanation: 12² = 144. Following the same pattern, 15² = 225.

Q35. Number Series

Find the missing number:

3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?

(A) 46
(B) 48
(C) 50
(D) 52

Answer: (B) 48

Explanation: The differences are 5, 7, 9 and 11. The next difference is 13.

35 + 13 = 48.

Q36. Symbol-Based Reasoning

If + means ×, × means −, − means ÷ and ÷ means +, find the value of:

12 − 3 + 2

(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12

Answer: (B) 8

Explanation: Replace the symbols according to the given conditions.

12 − 3 + 2 becomes 12 ÷ 3 × 2.

Using the standard order of operations:

12 ÷ 3 × 2 = 4 × 2 = 8.

Q37. Statement and Conclusion

Statement: Regular practice improves speed and accuracy in competitive examinations.

Conclusions:

I. Candidates should practise regularly.
II. Speed and accuracy are important in competitive examinations.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) Neither conclusion follows

Answer: (C) Both conclusions follow

Explanation: The statement directly connects regular practice with improved speed and accuracy. It supports the importance of practice as well as the value of speed and accuracy in examinations.

Q38. Comparison-Based Reasoning

A is taller than B. C is taller than A. D is shorter than B. Who is the tallest?

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

Answer: (C) C

Explanation: The given relationships are C > A > B > D. Therefore, C is the tallest.

Q39. Data Sufficiency

Question: Who is the tallest among P, Q and R?

Statements:

I. P is taller than Q.
II. R is taller than P.

(A) Statement I alone is sufficient
(B) Statement II alone is sufficient
(C) Both statements together are sufficient
(D) Neither statement is sufficient

Answer: (C) Both statements together are sufficient

Explanation: Statement I establishes P > Q, while Statement II establishes R > P. Combining them gives R > P > Q. Therefore, R is the tallest.

Q40. Syllogism

Statements:

• All roses are flowers.
• No flower is a tree.

Conclusions:

I. No rose is a tree.
II. Some flowers are roses.

(A) Only conclusion I follows
(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Both conclusions follow
(D) Neither conclusion follows

Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows

Explanation: All roses are flowers, and no flower is a tree. Therefore, no rose can be a tree. However, the statements do not establish that roses necessarily exist, so conclusion II does not follow.

How to Prepare for IBPS RRB PO Reasoning 2026

A good score in Reasoning Ability depends on selecting the right questions and maintaining accuracy. Follow these preparation tips:

• Practise puzzles daily: Solve floor-based, box-based, linear and circular arrangements regularly.
• Strengthen basic topics: Revise syllogism, inequality, blood relations and direction sense.
• Improve calculation-free speed: Learn to identify direct relationships and eliminate incorrect options quickly.
• Attempt timed practice sets: Practise 40-question sets within the 25-minute sectional limit.
• Analyse mistakes: Review incorrect answers and identify whether the issue was conceptual understanding, arrangement errors or time management.
• Take sectional mock tests: Use mock tests to understand your performance under exam-like conditions.

For better preparation, explore the IBPS RRB PO Top Scoring Topics for Reasoning.

Conclusion

The IBPS RRB PO Expected 40 Reasoning Questions practice set covers important topics from the Prelims syllabus, including puzzles, seating arrangements and miscellaneous reasoning. Practise these questions regularly, understand the explanations and work on improving your accuracy within the sectional time limit. You can also strengthen your preparation with the mock tests and study resources available on PracticeMock.

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IBPS RRB PO Previous Year Question Papers

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IBPS RRB PO Expected 40 Reasoning Questions 2026 FAQs

Q1. How many reasoning questions are asked in IBPS RRB PO Prelims?

The IBPS RRB PO Prelims Reasoning Ability section carries 40 questions for 40 marks. Candidates get 25 minutes to complete this section as per the available CRP-RRB XV exam pattern.

Q2. Which topics are important for IBPS RRB PO Reasoning 2026?

Puzzles, seating arrangements, syllogism, inequality, coding-decoding, blood relations, direction sense, alphanumeric series and order-ranking are important topics for IBPS RRB PO Prelims Reasoning.

Q3. How many questions can come from puzzles in IBPS RRB PO Prelims?

Based on previous-year trends, puzzles and seating arrangements may account for around 20–25 questions. However, the actual number can vary across examination shifts.

Q4. Is the IBPS RRB PO Reasoning section difficult?

The difficulty level can vary across shifts. The section generally includes puzzle-based and miscellaneous questions. Regular practice helps candidates improve their understanding, speed and accuracy.

Q5. How can I improve my speed in IBPS RRB PO Reasoning?

Practise timed question sets, learn basic solving techniques and attempt easier miscellaneous questions first. Analyse your mistakes after each test and avoid spending too much time on a single puzzle.

Q6. Are seating arrangement questions important for IBPS RRB PO Prelims?

Yes. Seating arrangements are an important part of the Reasoning Ability section. Practise linear, circular, parallel-row and other common arrangements to improve your performance.

Q7. How many reasoning questions should I practise daily for IBPS RRB PO?

You can begin with 30–40 questions daily and gradually increase the difficulty. Include both puzzle-based and miscellaneous questions to build balanced preparation.

Q8. Is there negative marking in IBPS RRB PO Reasoning?

Yes. As per the IBPS RRB examination pattern, one-fourth of the marks assigned to a question is deducted for each incorrect answer. No marks are deducted for unanswered questions.

Q9. Can I prepare for IBPS RRB PO Reasoning without mock tests?

You can learn concepts through topic-wise practice, but mock tests are important for improving time management and understanding your performance. Include regular sectional tests in your preparation.

Q10. Where can I practise IBPS RRB PO Reasoning expected questions?

You can practise topic-wise questions, solve previous-year papers and attempt the IBPS RRB PO Reasoning Mock Test to improve your preparation.